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Anonymous

A. At the landowners death, the wife has a defeasible life estate (don't care which type) and the daughter has a vested remainder as well as a shifting executory interest. All three of these interests are transferable. The daughter validly transferred both of her interests to her friend. The "until remarriage" condition was met at the time time the wife remarried, and it resulted in the early termination of her life estate. She had nothing left to give her new husband after the wedding. As an aside, this is also a more intuitive result than either B or D, since it would be very unfair if the wife could divest her daughter of her future ownership simply by giving her interest away to her spouse or friend.

Anonymous

I figured A because in the British royal succession you go down the line to a claimant, then check if they are ineligible (like if they are dead or Catholic) then if they are you go to their heirs. If you end the branch, you go back up one level and restart the process. I figure since royal law is based on tradition, and real property is from 13th Century Saxony (woo, Salic Law) dead people can probably inherit property to be disposed of to their designated heirs.