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MaasNeotekPrototype

Have to say A. If there's a problem with the loan coming through, for whatever reason---maybe something got lost, or there was a disagreement, or if there was a last second misinterpretation---then that's between the lender and the borrower. If the lender wasn't a part of the business dealings or plans of the borrower, then why should they be held responsible for something they weren't aware or a part of? And the first bank certainly can't control what the borrower does afterwards. The borrower wants to go to a different bank? Not the first bank's problem.

Anonymous

C. The difference in interest paid on the loan obtained vs. what would have been paid on the loan initially promised. This would put the borrower in as good of a position as he would have been in had the first lender followed through on the agreement. The lost profits are special damages the lender couldn't have foreseen as a part of the agreement, and the borrower can't recover for damages arising from his individual circumstances that aren't known by the lender and don't flow naturally from the agreement.

Anonymous

P.S. I initially read "a milestone!" as "a millstone!" and it made me remember what bar exam anxiety felt like (and avoid reading this question for a bit).